Hi Everyone,
I was just wondering if someone could clearify how bi-amping works. Below are two scenarios are they true and which one would be better.
1) B&W 683's if I biware to the speaker then only one connection to the amp would this create 4ohms? (4wires to 2wires)? If so would this not allow the amp to push 200watts per channel instead of 100w? Would there be an audible difference with this method?
2) B&W 683's if i biwire to the amp and then bi-wire to the speakers would it sound better then just standard and also if the above is true would it sound better then #1?
Thanks Terry
I was just wondering if someone could clearify how bi-amping works. Below are two scenarios are they true and which one would be better.
1) B&W 683's if I biware to the speaker then only one connection to the amp would this create 4ohms? (4wires to 2wires)? If so would this not allow the amp to push 200watts per channel instead of 100w? Would there be an audible difference with this method?
2) B&W 683's if i biwire to the amp and then bi-wire to the speakers would it sound better then just standard and also if the above is true would it sound better then #1?
Thanks Terry
