I have read that the purpose of a .1 sub is to provide that dymanic bass in a home listening environment where a setup of 5 full range speakers isn't practical, or can't handle a full range signal in all channels. Now, in a system where you have that ability to run all channels full range, how does the bass management setting work in our Rotel equipment... I have the 1068.
My assumption is the LFE channel is it's own channel for ultra low effects. However, when you cut low freqs from the other channels, it is coupled with the LFE channel as well. Does that also work vice versa? Here's the reason I ask... I run all my speakers as large with powered subs on each. I put a TST on the LFE channel to handle the ultra low effects. If I removed the TST and turned the LFE off in the 1068, is that .1 channel going to be filtered out into the rest of my channels or just not used? I would assume it's not used because the sole purpose of that channel isn't necessary in this type of setup. But, I guess that's what I'm trying to figure out.
AJ
My assumption is the LFE channel is it's own channel for ultra low effects. However, when you cut low freqs from the other channels, it is coupled with the LFE channel as well. Does that also work vice versa? Here's the reason I ask... I run all my speakers as large with powered subs on each. I put a TST on the LFE channel to handle the ultra low effects. If I removed the TST and turned the LFE off in the 1068, is that .1 channel going to be filtered out into the rest of my channels or just not used? I would assume it's not used because the sole purpose of that channel isn't necessary in this type of setup. But, I guess that's what I'm trying to figure out.
AJ

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