Hey guys,
Maybe one of you all can help me out with this one. I cannot find a definitive answer for why Sony uses a variable coeffecient digital filter in their better CD players. I don't want to get too techy mostly because I'll invite someone who is way smarter than me to give an answer I won't understand But let me lay out the details as I know them. Please point out where my understanding is incomplete.
I understand (at least I think I do) that this feature provides different filter "curves" for ultrasonic frequncies. Now, the nay-sayers will say "Who cares? It can't effect the sound because all the changes are above 20k".
Many believers will say "Well, some studies have shown that we may be sensitive to harmonic relationships well above 20k. Even if we can't detect the pure fundamentals up there"
Now, if we agree that there may be validity (there is, IMHO) to the high frecuency harmonics theory, there is still a problem. None of those frequencies can possibly exist on the disc. As we all know the maximum response on the disc is limited to 22.05k by the sampling rate. So where does that leave us?
Some true believers may say "Even though the ORIGINAL hf harmonics are not on the disc, one natural byproduct of reproducing multiple tones simutaneously is overtones. These overtones might act to *fill-in* the missing hf harmonics of the original recording"
OK, so if we agree that this is possible. I'm still confused. Here is what no one I've spoken to (even at Sony) can explain to me... Why a *varible* filter?
If you believe those hf tones are good (no matter how they got there) then you would want to preserve as much of them as possible by using a very gentle slope. Since the sampling noise is moved WELL into the ultrasonic via oversampling, there is no reason not to go with a low order roll off to preserve the "air". The only reason to use a steeper slope is to stop intermodulation of ultrasonic and audible frequencies which can produce tone multiples. But since we agreed that these "created" ultrasonic overtones "replace" the missing natural hf harmonics.... why try and remove them with steep filters?
Again the question is why do we need *varible* filter curves. If the "recreated" overtones are audible (in some way) then use a gentle slope to preserve them. Even if they are not audible then use a gentle curve anyway (the sampling noise is a non-factor) and prevent the possible "phase ringing" when using steeper slopes.
I don't get the need to vary the slope. And my sometimes cynical side comes out when no one at Sony I've spoken to has a cogent answer. Please don't misunderstand the point of my lengthy post, I'm not debating the validity of ultrasonic perceptions, audibilty of filter slopes, or anything else. Heck I wouldn't have the technical credentials to even begin staking out a position on those. It's simply a question why the filter is varialbe instead of fixed at the best position.
Thanks for making it all the way through this novella and hopefully for shedding some light on this for us.
dB
Maybe one of you all can help me out with this one. I cannot find a definitive answer for why Sony uses a variable coeffecient digital filter in their better CD players. I don't want to get too techy mostly because I'll invite someone who is way smarter than me to give an answer I won't understand But let me lay out the details as I know them. Please point out where my understanding is incomplete.
I understand (at least I think I do) that this feature provides different filter "curves" for ultrasonic frequncies. Now, the nay-sayers will say "Who cares? It can't effect the sound because all the changes are above 20k".
Many believers will say "Well, some studies have shown that we may be sensitive to harmonic relationships well above 20k. Even if we can't detect the pure fundamentals up there"
Now, if we agree that there may be validity (there is, IMHO) to the high frecuency harmonics theory, there is still a problem. None of those frequencies can possibly exist on the disc. As we all know the maximum response on the disc is limited to 22.05k by the sampling rate. So where does that leave us?
Some true believers may say "Even though the ORIGINAL hf harmonics are not on the disc, one natural byproduct of reproducing multiple tones simutaneously is overtones. These overtones might act to *fill-in* the missing hf harmonics of the original recording"
OK, so if we agree that this is possible. I'm still confused. Here is what no one I've spoken to (even at Sony) can explain to me... Why a *varible* filter?
If you believe those hf tones are good (no matter how they got there) then you would want to preserve as much of them as possible by using a very gentle slope. Since the sampling noise is moved WELL into the ultrasonic via oversampling, there is no reason not to go with a low order roll off to preserve the "air". The only reason to use a steeper slope is to stop intermodulation of ultrasonic and audible frequencies which can produce tone multiples. But since we agreed that these "created" ultrasonic overtones "replace" the missing natural hf harmonics.... why try and remove them with steep filters?
Again the question is why do we need *varible* filter curves. If the "recreated" overtones are audible (in some way) then use a gentle slope to preserve them. Even if they are not audible then use a gentle curve anyway (the sampling noise is a non-factor) and prevent the possible "phase ringing" when using steeper slopes.
I don't get the need to vary the slope. And my sometimes cynical side comes out when no one at Sony I've spoken to has a cogent answer. Please don't misunderstand the point of my lengthy post, I'm not debating the validity of ultrasonic perceptions, audibilty of filter slopes, or anything else. Heck I wouldn't have the technical credentials to even begin staking out a position on those. It's simply a question why the filter is varialbe instead of fixed at the best position.
Thanks for making it all the way through this novella and hopefully for shedding some light on this for us.
dB
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