Question about Bi-Amping Impedance

[stidrvr]

This may be silly, but when a speaker is bi-amped. Is the impedance the same? For example, the amplifiers I would like to use for and upcoming project, the RS 3way, are not bridgable. I would like to bi-amp them instead. And I was wondering, if I bi-amp the mid/tweeter and the woofers would the amp still see impedance load, or is its the same when parrelling coils on subwoofers where the impedanced is halfed?

[Dennis H]

It still sees the same impedance. Of course the impedance of a speaker can vary quite a bit with frequency so an 8-ohm nominal rating doesn't tell you too much.

[stidrvr]

right I understand that, I see the RS 3 way came be anywhere from 10 to 5 ohm, I was just wondering if the nominal of a speaker is say 6 ohms, when the speaker is bi amp is it still 6ohm per "section"? I figured the crossover has some effect on this?

[Dennis H]

Yeah, each section stays the same except the impedance of the woofer section will go way high above the crossover frequency (that's how the crossover cuts the highs) and the mid/tweet impedance will go way high below the XO.

[stidrvr]

Ahhh, ok I see. So really the impedance curve increases lowering power consumption, resulting in lower volume levels. So then really, the impedance curve per "section" is closely realted to the roll-off of the x-over then, correct?

[Dennis H]

This is a mid-tweet XO but the principle is the same.