Okay, so I'm in the process of taking my first set of real measurements, and I'm puzzling over something that I haven't seen addressed. Feel free to tell me I'm way off base on this one.
The farfield gated measurement has a limited low-frequency accuracy, something like 250 or 300Hz in typical home measurement setup.
The nearfield response has an upper limit that's defined, approxmately, by the baffle width, perhaps 500 or 600Hz in many cases.
Unfortunately, for the baffle I'm modeling (approx. 7" x 14") the overlap region is right in the middle of the 4pi to to 2pi transition region (the "baffle step"). The gated farfield response takes the baffle step into account, but the nearfield response does not. It is, in effect, an infinite baffle over the limited frequency range, up to 500 or 600Hz or so.
No where I've read suggests that a baffle step / baffle diffraction simulation should be applied to the nearfield prior to merging. Intuitively, it seems to me like there needs to be some sort of compensation applied to the nearfield response prior to merging with the farfield response.
Can someone explain to me why this is not the case? I find impossible to believe that I'm right about this and everyone else is wrong, so I need to know where my error in thinking is.
Thanks--
Greg
The farfield gated measurement has a limited low-frequency accuracy, something like 250 or 300Hz in typical home measurement setup.
The nearfield response has an upper limit that's defined, approxmately, by the baffle width, perhaps 500 or 600Hz in many cases.
Unfortunately, for the baffle I'm modeling (approx. 7" x 14") the overlap region is right in the middle of the 4pi to to 2pi transition region (the "baffle step"). The gated farfield response takes the baffle step into account, but the nearfield response does not. It is, in effect, an infinite baffle over the limited frequency range, up to 500 or 600Hz or so.
No where I've read suggests that a baffle step / baffle diffraction simulation should be applied to the nearfield prior to merging. Intuitively, it seems to me like there needs to be some sort of compensation applied to the nearfield response prior to merging with the farfield response.
Can someone explain to me why this is not the case? I find impossible to believe that I'm right about this and everyone else is wrong, so I need to know where my error in thinking is.
Thanks--
Greg
Comment